Practice PT0-003 Questions With Certification guide Q&A from Training Expert [Q16-Q38]

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Practice PT0-003 Questions With Certification guide Q&A from Training Expert TestInsides

Free CompTIA PT0-003 Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps

NEW QUESTION # 16
A penetration tester joins the assessment team in the middle of the assessment. The client has asked the team, both verbally and in the scoping document, not to test the production networks. However, the new tester is not aware of this request and proceeds to perform exploits in the production environment. Which of the following would have MOST effectively prevented this misunderstanding?

  • A. Prohibiting testers from joining the team during the assessment
  • B. Prohibiting exploitation in the production environment
  • C. Never assessing the production networks
  • D. Requiring all testers to review the scoping document carefully

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scoping document is a document that defines the objectives, scope, limitations, deliverables, and expectations of a penetration testing engagement. It is an essential document that guides the penetration testing process and ensures that both the tester and the client agree on the terms and conditions of the test.
Requiring all testers to review the scoping document carefully would have most effectively prevented this misunderstanding, as it would have informed the new tester about the client's request not to test the production networks. The other options are not effective or realistic ways to prevent this misunderstanding.


NEW QUESTION # 17
A penetration tester is able to capture the NTLM challenge-response traffic between a client and a server.
Which of the following can be done with the pcap to gain access to the server?

  • A. Use John the Ripper to crack the password.
  • B. Replay the captured traffic to the server to recreate the session.
  • C. Utilize a pass-the-hash attack.
  • D. Perform vertical privilege escalation.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 18
A large client wants a penetration tester to scan for devices within its network that are Internet facing. The client is specifically looking for Cisco devices with no authentication requirements. Which of the following settings in Shodan would meet the client's requirements?

  • A. "cisco-ios" "admin+1234"
  • B. "cisco-ios" "no-password"
  • C. "cisco-ios" "last-modified"
  • D. "cisco-ios" "default-passwords"

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 19
A private investigation firm is requesting a penetration test to determine the likelihood that attackers can gain access to mobile devices and then exfiltrate data from those devices. Which of the following is a social-engineering method that, if successful, would MOST likely enable both objectives?

  • A. Send an SMS with a spoofed service number including a link to download a malicious application.
  • B. Exploit a vulnerability in the MDM and create a new account and device profile.
  • C. Perform vishing on the IT help desk to gather a list of approved device IMEIs for masquerading.
  • D. Infest a website that is often used by employees with malware targeted toward x86 architectures.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Since it doesn't indicate company owned devices, sending a text to download an application is best. And it says social-engineering so a spoofed text falls under that area.


NEW QUESTION # 20
During a security assessment for an internal corporate network, a penetration tester wants to gain unauthorized access to internal resources by executing an attack that uses software to disguise itself as legitimate software. Which of the following host-based attacks should the tester use?

  • A. On-path
  • B. Logic bomb
  • C. Buffer overflow
  • D. Rootkit

Answer: D

Explanation:
A rootkit is a type of malicious software designed to provide an attacker with unauthorized access to a computer system while concealing its presence. Rootkits achieve this by modifying the host's operating system or other software to hide their existence, allowing the attacker to maintain control over the system without detection.
Step-by-Step Explanation
Definition and Purpose:
Rootkits are primarily used to gain and maintain root access (administrative privileges) on a system.
They disguise themselves as legitimate software or integrate deeply into the operating system to avoid detection.
Mechanisms of Action:
Kernel Mode Rootkits: These operate at the kernel level, which is the core of the operating system, making them very powerful and hard to detect.
User Mode Rootkits: These run in the same space as user applications, intercepting and altering standard system API calls to hide their presence.
Bootkits: These infect the Master Boot Record (MBR) or Volume Boot Record (VBR) and load before the operating system, making them extremely difficult to detect and remove.
Detection and Prevention:
Detection Tools: Tools like RootkitRevealer, Chkrootkit, and rkhunter can help in identifying rootkits.
Prevention: Regular system updates, use of strong antivirus and anti-malware solutions, and integrity checking tools like Tripwire can help in preventing rootkit infections.
Real-World Examples:
Sony BMG Rootkit: In 2005, Sony BMG included a rootkit in their digital rights management (DRM) software on music CDs. The rootkit hid files and processes, leading to a major scandal when it was discovered.
Stuxnet: This sophisticated worm included a rootkit component to hide its presence on infected systems, making it one of the most infamous examples of rootkit use in a cyber attack.
Reference from Pentesting Literature:
In "Penetration Testing - A Hands-on Introduction to Hacking" by Georgia Weidman, rootkits are discussed in the context of post-exploitation, where maintaining access to the compromised system is crucial.
Various HTB write-ups, such as the analysis of complex attacks involving multiple stages of exploitation, often highlight the use of rootkits in maintaining persistent access.
Reference:
Penetration Testing - A Hands-on Introduction to Hacking
HTB Official Writeups on sophisticated attacks


NEW QUESTION # 21
A penetration tester is conducting an engagement against an internet-facing web application and planning a phishing campaign. Which of the following is the BEST passive method of obtaining the technical contacts for the website?

  • A. Public data breach dumps
  • B. WHOIS domain lookup
  • C. Job listing and recruitment ads
  • D. SSL certificate information

Answer: B

Explanation:
The BEST passive method of obtaining the technical contacts for the website would be a WHOIS domain lookup. WHOIS is a protocol that provides information about registered domain names, such as the registration date, registrant's name and contact information, and the name servers assigned to the domain. By performing a WHOIS lookup, the penetration tester can obtain the contact information of the website's technical staff, which can be used to craft a convincing phishing email.


NEW QUESTION # 22
A penetration tester is conducting an authorized, physical penetration test to attempt to enter a client's building during non-business hours. Which of the following are MOST important for the penetration tester to have during the test? (Choose two.)

  • A. Caution tape for marking off insecure areas
  • B. The paperwork documenting the engagement
  • C. A handheld RF spectrum analyzer
  • D. A mask and personal protective equipment
  • E. Knowledge of the building's normal business hours
  • F. A dedicated point of contact at the client

Answer: B,F

Explanation:
Always carry the contact information and any documents stating that you are approved to do this.


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following OSSTM testing methodologies should be used to test under the worst conditions?

  • A. Known environment
  • B. Semi-authorized
  • C. Tandem
  • D. Reversal

Answer: A

Explanation:
The OSSTM testing methodology that should be used to test under the worst conditions is known environment, which is a testing approach that assumes that the tester has full knowledge of the target system or network, such as its architecture, configuration, vulnerabilities, or defenses. A known environment testing can simulate a worst-case scenario, where an attacker has gained access to sensitive information or insider knowledge about the target, and can exploit it to launch more sophisticated or targeted attacks. A known environment testing can also help identify the most critical or high-risk areas of the target, and provide recommendations for improving its security posture. The other options are not OSSTM testing methodologies that should be used to test under the worst conditions. Tandem is a testing approach that involves two testers working together on the same target, one as an attacker and one as a defender, to simulate a realistic attack scenario and evaluate the effectiveness of the defense mechanisms. Reversal is a testing approach that involves switching roles between the tester and the client, where the tester acts as a defender and the client acts as an attacker, to assess the security awareness and skills of the client. Semi-authorized is a testing approach that involves giving partial or limited authorization or access to the tester, such as a user account or a network segment, to simulate an attack scenario where an attacker has compromised a legitimate user or device.


NEW QUESTION # 24
A penetration tester is conducting an assessment of an organization that has both a web and mobile application. While testing the user profile page, the penetration tester notices that additional data is returned in the API response, which is not displayed in the web user interface. Which of the following is the most effective technique to extract sensitive user data?

  • A. Target the user profile page with a reflected XSS attack.
  • B. Compare the API response fields to GUI fields looking for PH.
  • C. Compare PI I from data leaks to publicly exposed user profiles.
  • D. Target the user profile page with a denial-of-service attack.

Answer: B

Explanation:
When additional data is returned in the API response that is not displayed in the web user interface, it indicates that there might be sensitive data being transmitted that is not intended for user display. By comparing the fields returned in the API response to those that are visible in the GUI, a penetration tester can identify any Personally Identifiable Information (PII) or other sensitive data that might be exposed unintentionally. This method is direct and does not involve attacking the system but rather analyzing the data being transmitted. The other options do not directly address the identification of sensitive data in API responses.


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is the most efficient way to infiltrate a file containing data that could be sensitive?

  • A. Encrypt and send the file over HTTPS
  • B. Compress the file and send it using TFTP
  • C. Split the file in tiny pieces and send it over dnscat
  • D. Use steganography and send the file over FTP

Answer: A

Explanation:
When considering efficiency and security for exfiltrating sensitive data, the chosen method must ensure data confidentiality and minimize the risk of detection. Here's an analysis of each option:
Use steganography and send the file over FTP (Option A):
Drawbacks: FTP is not secure as it transmits data in clear text, making it susceptible to interception. Steganography can add an extra layer of obfuscation, but the use of FTP makes this option insecure.
Compress the file and send it using TFTP (Option B):
Drawbacks: TFTP is inherently insecure because it does not support encryption, making it easy for attackers to intercept the data during transfer.
Split the file in tiny pieces and send it over dnscat (Option C):
Drawbacks: While effective at evading detection by using DNS, splitting the file and managing the reassembly adds complexity. Additionally, large data transfers over DNS can raise suspicion.
Encrypt and send the file over HTTPS (answer: D):
Advantages: HTTPS is widely used and trusted, making it less likely to raise suspicion. Encryption ensures the data remains confidential during transit.
Reference:
The use of HTTPS for secure data transfer is a standard practice in cybersecurity, providing both encryption and integrity of the data being transmitted.
Conclusion: Encrypting the file and sending it over HTTPS is the most efficient and secure method for exfiltrating sensitive data, ensuring both confidentiality and reducing the risk of detection.


NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following tasks would ensure the key outputs from a penetration test are not lost as part of the cleanup and restoration activities?

  • A. Reverting configuration changes
  • B. Keeping chain of custody
  • C. Preserving artifacts
  • D. Exporting credential data

Answer: C

Explanation:
Preserving Artifacts:
Definition: Artifacts in penetration testing include all data and evidence collected during the test, such as logs, screenshots, exploit scripts, configuration files, and any other relevant information.
Importance: These artifacts are critical for reporting and post-assessment analysis. They serve as evidence of findings and support the conclusions and recommendations made in the penetration test report.
Other Tasks:
Reverting Configuration Changes: Important for restoring systems to their original state but does not directly ensure preservation of key outputs.
Keeping Chain of Custody: Ensures that evidence is handled properly, particularly in legal contexts, but is more relevant to forensic investigations.
Exporting Credential Data: Part of preserving artifacts, but preserving artifacts is a broader task that encompasses more than just credential data.
Pentest Reference:
Reporting: Comprehensive documentation and reporting of findings are crucial parts of penetration testing.
Evidence Handling: Properly preserving and handling artifacts ensure that the integrity of the test results is maintained and can be used for future reference.
By preserving artifacts, the penetration tester ensures that all key outputs from the test are retained for analysis, reporting, and future reference.


NEW QUESTION # 27
During a penetration test, a junior tester uses Hunter.io for an assessment and plans to review the information that will be collected. Which of the following describes the information the junior tester will receive from the Hunter.io tool?

  • A. A collection of email addresses for the target domain that is available on multiple sources on the internet
  • B. Data breach information about the organization that could be used for additional enumeration
  • C. Information from the target's main web page that collects usernames, metadata, and possible data exposures
  • D. DNS records for the target domain and subdomains that could be used to increase the external attack surface

Answer: A

Explanation:
Hunter.io is a tool used for finding professional email addresses associated with a domain. Here's what it provides:
Functionality of Hunter.io:
Email Address Collection: Gathers email addresses associated with a target domain from various sources across the internet.
Verification: Validates the email addresses to ensure they are deliverable.
Sources: Aggregates data from public sources, company websites, and other internet databases.
Comparison with Other Options:
DNS Records (B): Hunter.io does not focus on DNS records; tools like dig or nslookup are used for DNS information.
Data Breach Information (C): Services like Have I Been Pwned are used for data breach information.
Web Page Information (D): Tools like wget, curl, or specific web scraping tools are used for collecting detailed web page information.
Hunter.io is specifically designed to collect and validate email addresses for a given domain, making it the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following assessment methods is MOST likely to cause harm to an ICS environment?

  • A. Packet analysis
  • B. Active scanning
  • C. Protocol reversing
  • D. Ping sweep

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 29
When developing a shell script intended for interpretation in Bash, the interpreter /bin/bash should be explicitly specified. Which of the following character combinations should be used on the first line of the script to accomplish this goal?

  • A. ##
  • B. #!
  • C. #$
  • D. <#
  • E. <$

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference: https://linuxconfig.org/bash-scripting-tutorial-for-beginners
#!/bin/bash ---# and ! makes this line special because # is used as comment line in bash. ! is called


NEW QUESTION # 30
During a web application assessment, a penetration tester identifies an input field that allows JavaScript injection. The tester inserts a line of JavaScript that results in a prompt, presenting a text box when browsing to the page going forward. Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?

  • A. SQL injection
  • B. XSS
  • C. SSRF
  • D. Server-side template injection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) is an attack that involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Here's why option C is correct:
XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): This attack involves injecting JavaScript into a web application, which is then executed by the user's browser. The scenario describes injecting a JavaScript prompt, which is a typical XSS payload.
SQL Injection: This involves injecting SQL commands to manipulate the database and does not relate to JavaScript injection.
SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery): This attack tricks the server into making requests to unintended locations, which is not related to client-side JavaScript execution.
Server-Side Template Injection: This involves injecting code into server-side templates, not JavaScript that executes in the user's browser.
Reference from Pentest:
Horizontall HTB: Demonstrates identifying and exploiting XSS vulnerabilities in web applications.
Luke HTB: Highlights the process of testing for XSS by injecting scripts and observing their execution in the browser.


NEW QUESTION # 31
A red-team tester has been contracted to emulate the threat posed by a malicious insider on a company's network, with the constrained objective of gaining access to sensitive personnel files. During the assessment, the red-team tester identifies an artifact indicating possible prior compromise within the target environment.
Which of the following actions should the tester take?

  • A. Create a detailed document of findings before continuing with the assessment.
  • B. Perform forensic analysis to isolate the means of compromise and determine attribution.
  • C. Incorporate the newly identified method of compromise into the red team's approach.
  • D. Halt the assessment and follow the reporting procedures as outlined in the contract.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Halting the assessment and following the reporting procedures as outlined in the contract is the best action to take after identifying that an application being tested has already been compromised with malware. This is because continuing the assessment might interfere with an ongoing investigation or compromise evidence collection. The reporting procedures are part of the contract that specifies how to handle any critical issues or incidents during the penetration testing engagement. They should include details such as who to contact, what information to provide, and what steps to follow.


NEW QUESTION # 32
A client would like to have a penetration test performed that leverages a continuously updated TTPs framework and covers a wide variety of enterprise systems and networks. Which of the following methodologies should be used to BEST meet the client's expectations?

  • A. NIST Cybersecurity Framework
  • B. OWASP Top 10
  • C. MITRE ATT&CK framework
  • D. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a methodology that should be used to best meet the client's expectations. The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that are continuously updated based on real-world observations. The framework covers a wide variety of enterprise systems and networks, such as Windows, Linux, macOS, cloud, mobile, and network devices. The framework can help the penetration tester to emulate realistic threats and identify gaps in defenses.


NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following protocols would a penetration tester most likely utilize to exfiltrate data covertly and evade detection?

  • A. HTTPS
  • B. DNS
  • C. FTP
  • D. SMTP

Answer: B

Explanation:
Covert data exfiltration is a crucial aspect of advanced penetration testing. Penetration testers often need to move data out of a network without being detected by the organization's security monitoring tools. Here's a breakdown of the potential methods and why DNS is the preferred choice for covert data exfiltration:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) (Option A):
Characteristics: FTP is a clear-text protocol used to transfer files.
Drawbacks: It is easily detected by network security tools due to its lack of encryption and distinctive traffic patterns. Most modern networks block or heavily monitor FTP traffic to prevent unauthorized file transfers.
Reference:
HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) (Option B):
Characteristics: HTTPS encrypts data in transit, making it harder to inspect by network monitoring tools.
Drawbacks: While HTTPS is more secure, large amounts of unusual or unexpected HTTPS traffic can still trigger alerts on sophisticated security systems. Its usage for exfiltration depends on the network's normal traffic patterns and the ability to blend in.
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) (Option C):
Characteristics: SMTP is used for sending emails.
Drawbacks: Like FTP, SMTP is not inherently secure and can be monitored. Additionally, large or frequent email attachments can trigger alerts.
DNS (Domain Name System) (Option D):
Characteristics: DNS is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses and vice versa.
Advantages: DNS traffic is ubiquitous and often less scrutinized than other types of traffic. Data can be encoded into DNS queries and responses, making it an effective covert channel for exfiltration.
Conclusion: DNS tunneling stands out as the most effective method for covert data exfiltration due to its ability to blend in with normal network traffic and avoid detection by conventional security mechanisms. Penetration testers utilize this method to evade scrutiny while exfiltrating data.


NEW QUESTION # 34
A penetration tester is trying to restrict searches on Google to a specific domain. Which of the following commands should the penetration tester consider?

  • A. site:
  • B. link:
  • C. inurl:
  • D. intitle:

Answer: A

Explanation:
The site: command can be used to restrict searches on Google to a specific domain. For example, site:company.com will return only results from the company.com domain. This can help the penetration tester to find information or pages related to the target domain.


NEW QUESTION # 35
A penetration tester presents the following findings to stakeholders:
Control | Number of findings | Risk | Notes
Encryption | 1 | Low | Weak algorithm noted
Patching | 8 | Medium | Unsupported systems
System hardening | 2 | Low | Baseline drift observed
Secure SDLC | 10 | High | Libraries have vulnerabilities
Password policy | 0 | Low | No exceptions noted
Based on the findings, which of the following recommendations should the tester make? (Select two).

  • A. Obtain the latest library version.
  • B. Write an SDLC policy.
  • C. Deploy an asset management system.
  • D. Implement an SCA tool.
  • E. Patch the libraries.
  • F. Develop a secure encryption algorithm.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Based on the findings, the focus should be on addressing vulnerabilities in libraries and ensuring their security. Here's why options D and E are correct:
Implement an SCA Tool:
SCA (Software Composition Analysis) tools are designed to analyze and manage open-source components in an application. Implementing an SCA tool would help in identifying and managing vulnerabilities in libraries, aligning with the finding of vulnerable libraries in the secure SDLC process.
This recommendation addresses the high-risk finding related to the Secure SDLC by providing a systematic approach to manage and mitigate vulnerabilities in software dependencies.
Obtain the Latest Library Version:
Keeping libraries up to date is a fundamental practice in maintaining the security of an application. Ensuring that the latest, most secure versions of libraries are used directly addresses the high-risk finding related to vulnerable libraries.
This recommendation is a direct and immediate action to mitigate the identified vulnerabilities.
Other Options Analysis:
Develop a Secure Encryption Algorithm: This is not practical or necessary given that the issue is with the use of a weak algorithm, not the need to develop a new one.
Deploy an Asset Management System: While useful, this is not directly related to the identified high-risk issue of vulnerable libraries.
Write an SDLC Policy: While helpful, the more immediate and effective actions involve implementing tools and processes to manage and update libraries.
Reference from Pentest:
Horizontall HTB: Demonstrates the importance of managing software dependencies and using tools to identify and mitigate vulnerabilities in libraries.
Writeup HTB: Highlights the need for keeping libraries updated to ensure application security and mitigate risks.
Conclusion:
Options D and E, implementing an SCA tool and obtaining the latest library version, are the most appropriate recommendations to address the high-risk finding related to vulnerable libraries in the Secure SDLC process.


NEW QUESTION # 36
The results of an Nmap scan are as follows:
Starting Nmap 7.80 ( https://nmap.org ) at 2021-01-24 01:10 EST
Nmap scan report for ( 10.2.1.22 )
Host is up (0.0102s latency).
Not shown: 998 filtered ports
Port State Service
80/tcp open http
|_http-title: 80F 22% RH 1009.1MB (text/html)
|_http-slowloris-check:
| VULNERABLE:
| Slowloris DoS Attack
| <..>
Device type: bridge|general purpose
Running (JUST GUESSING) : QEMU (95%)
OS CPE: cpe:/a:qemu:qemu
No exact OS matches found for host (test conditions non-ideal).
OS detection performed. Please report any incorrect results at https://nmap.org/submit/.
Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 107.45 seconds
Which of the following device types will MOST likely have a similar response? (Choose two.)

  • A. Active Directory domain controller
  • B. Print queue
  • C. Public-facing web server
  • D. Exposed RDP
  • E. Network device
  • F. IoT/embedded device

Answer: C,F

Explanation:
https://www.netscout.com/what-is-ddos/slowloris-attacks
From the http-title in the output, this looks like an IoT device with RH implying Relative Humidity, that offers a web-based interface for visualizing the results.


NEW QUESTION # 37
A penetration tester is testing input validation on a search form that was discovered on a website. Which of the following characters is the BEST option to test the website for vulnerabilities?

  • A. Comma
  • B. Double dash
  • C. Semicolon
  • D. Single quote

Answer: D

Explanation:
A single quote (') is a common character used to test for SQL injection vulnerabilities, which occur when user input is directly passed to a database query. A single quote can terminate a string literal and allow an attacker to inject malicious SQL commands. For example, if the search form uses the query SELECT * FROM products WHERE name LIKE '%user_input%', then entering a single quote as user input would result in an error or unexpected behavior


NEW QUESTION # 38
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