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CDPSE exam torrent ISACA study guide
ISACA CDPSE (Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer) certification exam is a highly sought-after credential for professionals who want to advance their careers in the field of data privacy. This credential is designed to validate the knowledge and skills of professionals in the area of data privacy solutions engineering. The CDPSE certification exam is a comprehensive exam that covers a wide range of topics related to data privacy, including privacy governance, data protection, and compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 137
Which of the following should be done FIRST before an organization migrates data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction?
- A. Assess the organization's exposure related to the migration.
- B. Ensure data loss prevention (DLP) alerts are turned on.
- C. Encrypt the data while it is being migrated.
- D. Conduct a penetration test of the hosted solution.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is D. Assess the organization's exposure related to the migration.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Before an organization migrates data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction, it should first assess its exposure related to the migration. This means that the organization should identify and evaluate the potential risks and benefits of moving its data to the cloud, taking into account the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations and implications of doing so.
Some of the factors that the organization should consider in its assessment are:
The nature, sensitivity, and value of the data being migrated, and the impact of its loss, theft, corruption, or disclosure on the organization and its stakeholders.
The security, privacy, and compliance requirements and standards that apply to the data in each jurisdiction where it is stored, processed, or accessed, and the differences or conflicts among them.
The trustworthiness, reliability, and reputation of the cloud service provider and its subcontractors, and the terms and conditions of their service level agreements (SLAs) and contracts.
The availability, performance, scalability, and cost-effectiveness of the cloud-hosted solution compared to the on-premise solution, and the trade-offs involved.
The technical feasibility and complexity of migrating the data from the on-premise solution to the cloud-hosted solution, and the tools and methods needed to do so.
The organizational readiness and capability to manage the change and transition from the on-premise solution to the cloud-hosted solution, and the training and support needed for the staff and users.
By conducting a thorough assessment of its exposure related to the migration, the organization can make an informed decision about whether to proceed with the migration or not, or under what conditions or modifications. The assessment can also help the organization to plan and implement appropriate measures and controls to mitigate or avoid any negative consequences and enhance or maximize any positive outcomes of the migration.
Ensuring data loss prevention (DLP) alerts are turned on (A), encrypting the data while it is being migrated (B), and conducting a penetration test of the hosted solution are all good practices to protect data privacy and security when migrating data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution that spans more than one jurisdiction. However they are not the first steps that should be done before the migration. They are more relevant during or after the migration process. They also do not address other aspects of exposure related to the migration, such as legal, regulatory, contractual, or ethical issues.
Reference:
Data Migration: On-Premise to Cloud - 10 Steps to Success1
8 Best Practices for On-Premises to Cloud Migration2
5 Steps for a Successful On-Premise to Cloud Migration3
Extend on-premises data solutions to the cloud4
On Premise to Cloud migration tool5
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that a potential vendor is able to comply with privacy regulations and the organization's data privacy policy?
- A. Requiring candidate vendors to provide documentation of privacy processes
- B. Conducting a risk assessment of all candidate vendors
- C. Obtaining self-attestations from all candidate vendors
- D. Including mandatory compliance language in the request for proposal (RFP)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Conducting a risk assessment of all candidate vendors is the best way to provide assurance that a potential vendor is able to comply with privacy regulations and the organization's data privacy policy, because it allows the organization to evaluate the vendor's privacy practices, controls, and performance against a set of criteria and standards. A risk assessment can also help to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or threats that may pose a risk to the organization's data privacy objectives and obligations. A risk assessment can be based on various sources of information, such as self-attestations, documentation, audits, or independent verification. A risk assessment can also help to prioritize the vendors based on their level of risk and impact, and to determine the appropriate mitigation or monitoring actions.
References:
* 8 Steps to Manage Vendor Data Privacy Compliance, DocuSign
* Supplier Security and Privacy Assurance (SSPA) program, Microsoft Learn
NEW QUESTION # 139
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to complete a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?
- A. To understand privacy risks
- B. To establish privacy breach response procedures
- C. To classify personal data
- D. To comply with consumer regulatory requirements
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 140
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure privacy considerations are included when working with vendors?
- A. Monitoring privacy-related service level agreements (SLAS)
- B. Requiring vendors to complete privacy awareness training
- C. Including privacy requirements in vendor contracts
- D. Including privacy requirements in the request for proposal (RFP) process
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Including privacy requirements in vendor contracts is the best way to ensure privacy considerations are included when working with vendors because it establishes the obligations, expectations and responsibilities of both parties regarding the protection of personal data. It also provides a legal basis for enforcing compliance and resolving disputes. Including privacy requirements in the request for proposal (RFP) process, monitoring privacy-related service level agreements (SLAs) and requiring vendors to complete privacy awareness training are helpful measures, but they do not guarantee that vendors will adhere to the privacy requirements or that they will be held accountable for any violations.
References:
CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 1: Privacy Governance, Task 1.7: Participate in the management and evaluation of contracts, service levels and practices of vendors and other external parties1 CDPSE Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 2: Privacy Governance, Section: Vendor Management2
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which of the following features should be incorporated into an organization's technology stack to meet privacy requirements related to the rights of data subjects to control their personal data?
- A. Establishing a data privacy customer service bot for individuals
- B. Allowing system administrators to manage data access
- C. Allowing individuals to have direct access to their data
- D. Providing system engineers the ability to search and retrieve data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Any organization collecting information about EU residents is required to operate with transparency in collecting and using their personal information. Chapter III of the GDPR defines eight data subject rights that have become foundational for other privacy regulations around the world:
Right to access personal data. Data subjects can access the data collected on them.
One of the privacy requirements related to the rights of data subjects is the right to access, which means that individuals have the right to obtain a copy of their personal data, as well as information about how their data is processed, by whom, for what purposes, and for how long. To meet this requirement, an organization's technology stack should incorporate features that allow individuals to have direct access to their data, such as self-service portals, dashboards, or applications. This way, individuals can exercise their right to access without relying on intermediaries or manual processes, which can be inefficient, error-prone, or insecure. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 137
NEW QUESTION # 142
An organization's data destruction guidelines should require hard drives containing personal data to go through which of the following processes prior to being crushed?
- A. Remote partitioning
- B. Degaussing
- C. Low-level formatting
- D. Hammer strike
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Degaussing is a hard drive sanitation method that uses a powerful magnetic field to erase or destroy the data stored on a magnetic disk or tape. Degaussing should be used to sanitize hard drives containing personal data prior to being crushed, as it provides an additional layer of assurance that data has been permanently erased and cannot be recovered by any means. Degaussing also damages the drive itself, making it unusable for future storage. The other options are not effective or necessary hard drive sanitation methods prior to being crushed.
Low-level formatting is a hard drive sanitation method that erases the data and the partition table on the drive, but it may leave some traces of data that can be recovered by forensic tools or software. Remote partitioning is a hard drive sanitation method that creates separate logical sections on the drive, but it does not erase or destroy the data on the drive. Hammer strike is a hard drive sanitation method that physically damages the drive by hitting it with a hammer, but it may not erase or destroy the data completely or prevent data recovery by advanced tools or techniques1, p. 93-94 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following BEST mitigates the privacy risk associated with setting cookies on a website?
- A. Implementing impersonation
- B. Obtaining user consent
- C. Applying data masking
- D. Ensuring nonrepudiation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Obtaining user consent is the best way to mitigate the privacy risk associated with setting cookies on a website. This means that the website should inform the users about the purpose, type, and duration of the cookies, and ask for their permission before storing or accessing any cookies on their browsers. This way, the users can exercise their right to control their personal data and opt-in or opt-out of cookies as they wish.
According to the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), consent must be freely given, specific, informed, and unambiguous. The website should provide clear and easy-to-understand information about the cookies and their implications for the users' privacy, and offer a simple and effective way for the users to indicate their consent or refusal. The website should also respect the users' choice and allow them to withdraw their consent at any time.
Implementing impersonation, ensuring nonrepudiation, and applying data masking are not relevant or effective methods to mitigate the privacy risk associated with setting cookies on a website. Impersonation means accessing or using data on behalf of another user, which could violate their privacy and security.
Nonrepudiation means providing proof of the origin, authenticity, and integrity of data, which does not address the issue of user consent or preference. Data masking means hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or modified data, which does not prevent the storage or access of cookies on the user's browser.
NEW QUESTION # 144
Which of the following is the BEST approach for a local office of a global organization faced with multiple privacy-related compliance requirements?
- A. Focus on global compliance before meeting local requirements.
- B. Focus on developing a risk action plan based on audit reports.
- C. Focus on local standards before meeting global compliance.
- D. Focus on requirements with the highest organizational impact.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 145
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern for an organization subject to cross-border data transfer regulations when using a cloud service provider to store and process data?
- A. The service provider has denied the organization's request for right to audit.
- B. The data is stored in a region with different data protection requirements.
- C. The extent of the service provider's access to data has not been established.
- D. Personal data stored on the cloud has not been anonymized.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 146
Which of the following zones within a data lake requires sensitive data to be encrypted or tokenized?
- A. Temporal zone
- B. Raw zone
- C. Clean zone
- D. Trusted zone
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A raw zone is a zone within a data lake that contains unprocessed or unstructured data that is ingested from various sources without any transformation or validation. A raw zone may contain sensitive data that has not been identified or classified yet, such as personal data. Therefore, sensitive data in a raw zone should be encrypted or tokenized to protect its confidentiality and integrity. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Tokenization is a process of replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes called tokens. Both encryption and tokenization help to prevent unauthorized or unlawful access, use, disclosure, or transfer of sensitive data in a raw zone. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 169
NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of adopting data minimization practices?
- A. The associated threat surface is reduced.
- B. Data retention efficiency is enhanced.
- C. Storage and encryption costs are reduced.
- D. Compliance requirements are met.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The greatest benefit of adopting data minimization practices is that the associated threat surface is reduced.
Data minimization is a privacy principle that states that personal data should be adequate, relevant, and limited to what is necessary for the purposes for which they are processed. Data minimization helps to protect data privacy by reducing the amount and type of personal data that are collected, stored, processed, or shared by an organization. This in turn reduces the exposure of personal data to potential threats, such as unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or loss. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 29
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following should an organization do FIRST to ensure it can respond to all data subject access requests in a timely manner?
- A. Understand the data in its possession.
- B. Create a policy for handling access request
- C. Invest in a platform to automate data review
- D. Confirm what is required for disclosure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before an organization can respond to data subject access requests (DSARs), it needs to have a clear understanding of the data in its possession, such as what types of personal data are collected, where they are stored, how they are processed, who has access to them, and how long they are retained. This will help the organization to locate and retrieve the relevant data for each DSAR, and to ensure that the data are accurate, complete and up to date. Understanding the data in its possession will also help the organization to comply with other data protection principles and obligations, such as data minimization, purpose limitation, security and accountability.
The other options are less important or irrelevant to do first. Investing in a platform to automate data review may help to speed up the response process, but it does not guarantee that the organization has identified all the data sources and categories that are subject to DSARs. Confirming what is required for disclosure is also important, but it depends on the specific request and the applicable law or regulation. Creating a policy for handling access requests is a good practice, but it should be based on a thorough understanding of the data in its possession.
Reference:
Practical Data Security and Privacy for GDPR and CCPA - ISACA, section 2: "It is important to understand what personal information is collected and processed by an organization." Introduction to Data Subject Access Requests - Everlaw, section 3: "The first step in responding to a DSAR is identifying where the relevant personal data reside within your organization." Guidelines 01/2022 on data subject rights - Right of access Version 1, section 2.1: "The controller should have a clear overview of all processing activities involving personal data."
NEW QUESTION # 149
Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the protection of personal data collected by an organization?
- A. Data owner
- B. Data custodian
- C. Data protection officer
- D. Data processor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The data owner is the person or entity who has the ultimate authority and responsibility for the protection of personal data collected by an organization. The data owner defines the purpose, scope, classification, and retention of the personal data, as well as the rights and obligations of the data subjects and other parties involved in the data processing. The data owner also ensures that the personal data is handled in compliance with the applicable privacy laws and regulations, as well as the organization's privacy policies and standards.
The data owner may delegate some of the operational tasks to the data processor, data custodian, or data protection officer, but the accountability remains with the data owner.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 81
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which of the following should be done NEXT after a privacy risk has been accepted?
- A. Adjust the risk rating to help ensure it is remediated
- B. Reconfirm the risk during the next reporting period
- C. Determine the risk appetite With management.
- D. Monitor the risk landscape for material changes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
After a privacy risk has been accepted, the next step is to monitor the risk landscape for material changes. This means that the organization should keep track of any internal or external factors that may affect the likelihood or impact of the risk, such as new threats, vulnerabilities, regulations, technologies, or business processes. Monitoring the risk landscape can help the organization identify if the risk acceptance decision is still valid, or if it needs to be revisited or revised. Monitoring can also help the organization prepare for potential incidents or consequences that may arise from the accepted risk.
NEW QUESTION # 151
Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration to ensure control of remote access is aligned to the privacy policy?
- A. Multi-factor authentication is enabled.
- B. Access is logged on the virtual private network (VPN).
- C. Active remote access is monitored.
- D. Access is only granted to authorized users.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The primary consideration to ensure control of remote access is aligned to the privacy policy is that access is only granted to authorized users. This means that the organization should implement and enforce policies and procedures to identify, authenticate, and authorize users who need to access personal data remotely, such as employees, contractors, or service providers. The organization should also define and communicate the roles and responsibilities of remote users, and the terms and conditions of remote access, such as the purpose, scope, duration, and security measures. By granting access only to authorized users, the organization can protect data privacy by preventing unauthorized or unnecessary access, use, disclosure, or transfer of personal data. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 107
NEW QUESTION # 152
Which of the following deployed at an enterprise level will MOST effectively block malicious tracking of user Internet browsing?
- A. Web application firewall (WAF)
- B. Domain name system (DNS) sinkhole
- C. Website URL blacklisting
- D. Desktop antivirus software
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 153
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The world of data privacy is becoming increasingly important in the digital age we live in today. With the vast amounts of data being generated and stored, it is crucial to have professionals who can ensure that data is kept secure and protected. The ISACA CDPSE exam is one such certification that equips professionals with the necessary skills and knowledge to become a certified data privacy solutions engineer.
The Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer (CDPSE) exam is designed to ensure that the professionals involved in data privacy management possess the necessary skills and knowledge to protect data privacy. Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer certification validates the expertise of individuals in this field and their ability to develop and implement effective privacy solutions. Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer certification is offered by ISACA, a global organization for Information Technology (IT) professionals, and is recognized worldwide.
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