2025 Easy Success ISC CCSP Exam in First Try
Best CCSP Exam Dumps for the Preparation of Latest Exam Questions
ISC CCSP certification exam is a comprehensive exam that requires candidates to demonstrate their knowledge and understanding of a wide range of cloud security topics. CCSP exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions, and candidates have four hours to complete the exam. Candidates must score at least 700 out of 1000 points to pass the exam. CCSP exam is available in English, Japanese, and Portuguese.
To be eligible for the ISC CCSP Certification Exam, candidates must have a minimum of five years of cumulative paid work experience in information technology, with at least three years of experience in information security and one year in cloud computing. They must also have a broad understanding of cloud computing technologies and their impact on security and compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 461
In a cloud environment, encryption should be used for all the following, except:
- A. Near-term storage of virtualized images
- B. Profile formatting
- C. Long-term storage of data
- D. Secure sessions/VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
All of these activities should incorporate encryption, except for profile formatting, which is a made-up term.
NEW QUESTION # 462
The European Union is often considered the world leader in regard to the privacy of personal data and has declared privacy to be a "human right." In what year did the EU first assert this principle?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The EU passed Directive 95/46 EC in 1995, which established data privacy as a human right. The other years listed are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 463
What is the intellectual property protection for a useful manufacturing innovation?
- A. Trade secret
- B. Trademark
- C. Copyright
- D. patent
Answer: D
Explanation:
Patents protect processes (as well as inventions, new plantlife, and decorative patterns). The other answers listed are answers to other questions.
NEW QUESTION # 464
Who should be the only entity allowed to declare that an organization can return to normal following contingency or BCDR operations?
- A. Law enforcement
- B. Regulators
- C. Senior management
- D. The incident manager
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 465
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats to organizations participating in cloud computing.
According to the CSA, an organization that suffers a data breach might suffer all of the following negative effects except __________.
Response:
- A. Loss of market share
- B. Cost of detection
- C. Loss of public perception/goodwill
- D. Cost of compliance with notification laws
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 466
Jurisdictions have a broad range of privacy requirements pertaining to the handling of personal data and information.
Which jurisdiction requires all storage and processing of data that pertains to its citizens to be done on hardware that is physically located within its borders?
- A. Japan
- B. Russia
- C. European Union
- D. United States
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Russian government requires all data and processing of information about its citizens to be done solely on systems and applications that reside within the physical borders of the country.
The United States, European Union, and Japan focus their data privacy laws on requirements and methods for the protection of data, rather than where the data physically resides.
NEW QUESTION # 467
Which of the following areas of responsibility would be shared between the cloud customer and cloud provider within the Software as a Service (SaaS) category?
- A. Governance
- B. Application
- C. Data
- D. Physical
Answer: B
Explanation:
With SaaS, the application is a shared responsibility between the cloud provider and cloud customer.
Although the cloud provider is responsible for deploying, maintaining, and securing the application, the cloud customer does carry some responsibility for the configuration of users and options. Regardless of the cloud service category used, the physical environment is always the sole responsibility of the cloud provider. With all cloud service categories, the data and governance are always the sole responsibility of the cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION # 468
Being in a cloud environment, cloud customers lose a lot of insight and knowledge as to how their data is stored and their systems are deployed.
Which concept from the ISO/IEC cloud standards relates to the necessity of the cloud provider to inform the cloud customer on these issues?
- A. Transparency
- B. Documentation
- C. Openness
- D. Disclosure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation:
Transparency is the official process by which a cloud provider discloses insight and information into its configurations or operations to the appropriate audiences. Disclosure, openness, and documentation are all terms that sound similar to the correct answer, but none of them is the correct term in this case.
NEW QUESTION # 469
Which of the following is NOT one of five principles of SOC Type 2 audits?
- A. Security
- B. Financial
- C. Privacy
- D. Processing integrity
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The SOC Type 2 audits include five principles: security, privacy, processing integrity, availability, and confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 470
In the wake of many scandals with major corporations involving fraud and the deception of investors and regulators, which of the following laws was passed to govern accounting and financial records and disclosures?
- A. GLBA
- B. HIPAA
- C. Safe Harbor
- D. SOX
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) regulates the financial and accounting practices used by organizations in order to protect shareholders from improper practices and accounting errors.The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) pertains to the protection of patient medical records and privacy.
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) focuses on the use of PII within financial institutions. The Safe Harbor program was designed by the US government as a way for American companies to comply with European Union privacy laws.
NEW QUESTION # 471
Which protocol operates at the network layer and provides for full point-to-point encryption of all communications and transmissions?
- A. IPSec
- B. SSL
- C. VPN
- D. TLS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
IPSec is a protocol for encrypting and authenticating packets during transmission between two parties and can involve any type of device, application, or service. The protocol performs both the authentication and negotiation of security policies between the two parties at the start of the connection and then maintains these policies throughout the lifetime of the connection. TLS operates at the application layer, not the network layer, and is widely used to secure communications between two parties. SSL is similar to TLS but has been deprecated. Although a VPN allows a secure channel for communications into a private network from an outside location, it's not a protocol.
NEW QUESTION # 472
When reviewing the BIA after a cloud migration, the organization should take into account new factors related to data breach impacts. One of these new factors is:
- A. Legal liability can't be transferred to the cloud provider.
- B. Breaches can cause the loss of proprietary data.
- C. Breaches can cause the loss of intellectual property.
- D. Many states have data breach notification laws.
Answer: A
Explanation:
State notification laws and the loss of proprietary data/intellectual property pre-existed the cloud; only the lack of ability to transfer liability is new.
NEW QUESTION # 473
A DLP solution/implementation has three main components.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three main components?
- A. Discovery and classification
- B. Auditing
- C. Monitoring
- D. Enforcement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Auditing, which can be supported to varying degrees by DLP solutions, is not a core component of them. Data loss prevention (DLP) solutions have core components of discovery and classification, enforcement, and monitoring. Discovery and classification are concerned with determining which data should be applied to the DLP policies, and then determining its classification level. Monitoring is concerned with the actual watching of data and how it's used through its various stages. Enforcement is the actual application of policies determined from the discovery stage and then triggered during the monitoring stage.
NEW QUESTION # 474
What process is used within a clustered system to provide high availability and load balancing?
- A. Dynamic resource scheduling
- B. Dynamic optimization
- C. Dynamic clustering
- D. Dynamic balancing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic resource scheduling (DRS) is used within all clustering systems as the method for clusters to provide high availability, scaling, management, and workload distribution and balancing of jobs and processes. From a physical infrastructure perspective, DRS is used to balance compute loads between physical hosts in a cloud to maintain the desired thresholds and limits on the physical hosts.
NEW QUESTION # 475
User access to the cloud environment can be administered in all of the following ways except:
- A. Customer directly administers access
- B. Third party provides administration on behalf of the customer
- C. Customer provides administration on behalf of the provider
- D. Provider provides administration on behalf the customer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The customer does not administer on behalf of the provider. All the rest are possible options.
NEW QUESTION # 476
Just like the risk management process, the BCDR planning process has a defined sequence of steps and processes to follow to ensure the production of a comprehensive and successful plan.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for a BCDR plan?
- A. Gather requirements, define scope, implement, assess risk
- B. Define scope, gather requirements, assess risk, implement
- C. Gather requirements, define scope, assess risk, implement
- D. Define scope, gather requirements, implement, assess risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct sequence for a BCDR plan is to define the scope, gather requirements based on the scope, assess overall risk, and implement the plan. The other sequences provided are not in the correct order.
NEW QUESTION # 477
BCDR strategies do not typically involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of services that need to be recovered to meet BCDR objectives?
- A. RSL
- B. RPO
- C. SRE
- D. RTO
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the determined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation.
The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.
NEW QUESTION # 478
Digital rights management (DRM) tools can be combined with ___________, to enhance security capabilities.
Response:
- A. Internal hardware settings (BIOS)
- B. Egress monitoring solutions (DLP)
- C. Roaming identity services (RIS)
- D. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 479
Which of the following are attributes of cloud computing?
- A. Limited access and service provider interaction
- B. Minimal management effort and shared resources
- C. Rapid provisioning and slow release of resources
- D. High cost and unique resources
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
NEW QUESTION # 480
You work for a government research facility. Your organization often shares data with other government research organizations.
You would like to create a single sign-on experience across the organizations, where users at each organization can sign in with the user ID/authentication issued by that organization, then access research data in all the other organizations.
Instead of replicating the data stores of each organization at every other organization (which is one way of accomplishing this goal), you instead want every user to have access to each organization's specific storage resources.
In order to pass the user IDs and authenticating credentials of each user among the organizations, what protocol/language/motif will you most likely utilize?
Response:
- A. Representational State Transfer (REST)
- B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
- C. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
- D. Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 481
Which technology is NOT commonly used for security with data in transit?
- A. IPsec
- B. HTTPS
- C. VPN
- D. DNSSEC
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DNSSEC relates to the integrity of DNS resolutions and the prevention of spoofing or redirection, and does not pertain to the actual security of transmissions or the protection of data.
NEW QUESTION # 482
Which aspect of cloud computing serves as the biggest challenge to using DLP to protect data at rest?
- A. Interoperability
- B. Reversibility
- C. Resource pooling
- D. Portability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Resource pooling serves as the biggest challenge to using DLP solutions to protect data at rest because data is spread across large systems, which are also shared by many different clients. With the data always moving and being distributed, additional challenges for protection are created versus a physical and isolated storage system. Portability is the ability to easily move between different cloud providers, and interoperability is focused on the ability to reuse components or services. Reversibility pertains to the ability of a cloud customer to easily and completely remove their data and services from a cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION # 483
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