CRISC Exam Dumps, CRISC Practice Test Questions
PDF (New 2025) Actual ISACA CRISC Exam Questions
To be eligible for the CRISC certification, candidates must have at least three years of experience in the field of IT risk management and control, with at least one year of experience in two or more of the four domains covered in the exam. Alternatively, candidates can substitute two years of general work experience for one year of domain-specific experience. Additionally, candidates must adhere to the ISACA Code of Ethics and pass the CRISC exam.
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification for professionals involved in the management of IT risk and information systems (IS) control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification exam validates the candidate's knowledge and skills required to identify, evaluate, and manage IT risk and implement and maintain effective IS controls.
The CRISC certification exam is designed to test the proficiency of candidates in four domains: IT risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring. Candidates are required to have a minimum of three years of experience in at least two of these domains and must pass the certification exam to become certified. CRISC exam is a comprehensive, four-hour test consisting of 150 multiple-choice questions that cover all four domains.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is
revoked upon departure from the organization?
- A. The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.
- B. A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.
- C. Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.
- D. A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the
organization is to have the human resources (HR) system automatically revoke system access, which is a
process that involves integrating the HR system with the IT system, and triggering the removal of access
rights for the employee as soon as the termination is recorded in the HR system12.
This method is the best because it provides the most timely, accurate, and consistent way of revoking access,
and reduces the risk of human error, oversight, or delay that may occur in manual or semi-automated
processes12.
This method is also the best because it enhances the security and compliance of the organization, and prevents
the terminated employee from accessing or compromising the IT systems or data after departure12.
The other options are not the best methods, but rather alternative or supplementary methods that may have
some limitations or drawbacks. For example:
Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees is a method that involves monitoring and
verifying the login activities of the IT systems, and comparing them with a list of terminated employees to
identify and block any unauthorized access attempts34. However, this method is not the best because it is
reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent the terminated employee from accessing the IT systems
before the reconciliation is done34.
A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access is a method that
involves creating and maintaining a list of terminated employees, and checking it against the current IT access
rights to identify and remove any access that is no longer needed34. However, this method is not the best
because it is manual and labor-intensive, and may introduce errors or inconsistencies in the list or the access
rights34.
A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented is a method that involves
conducting an exit interview with the terminated employee, and revoking the employee's access to the IT
systems during or immediately after the interview34. However, this method is not the best because it depends
on the availability and cooperation of the terminated employee, and may not cover all the IT systems or
access rights that the employee had34. References =
1: IT Involvement in Employee Termination, A Checklist3
2: Best Practices to Ensure Departing Employees Retain No Access5
3: User Termination Best Practices - IT Security - Spiceworks2
4: IT Security for Employee Termination - Policies, Checklists, Templates - Endsight1
NEW QUESTION # 82
A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?
- A. Notify executive management.
- B. Analyze the impact to the organization.
- C. Update the IT risk register.
- D. Design IT risk mitigation plans.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, impact analysis is the process of estimating and evaluating the potential effects of a risk event on the organization's objectives, processes, resources, and risks. Impact analysis helps to quantify and qualify the severity and likelihood of the risk, and to identify the possible consequences and implications for the organization. Impact analysis is the first step that should be done when a risk practitioner learns about a new threat, as it helps to assess the current level of risk exposure and the urgency of the risk response. Impact analysis also helps to communicate and report the risk to the relevant stakeholders, and to facilitate risk-based decision making and action planning. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 208.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:
- A. inherent risk.
- B. residual risk.
- C. risk capacity.
- D. risk tolerance.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?
- A. Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.
- B. Key controls are identified and documented.
- C. Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.
- D. Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The effective implementation of a risk treatment plan is best indicated by managing residual risk within the organization's appetite and tolerance levels. Residual risk is the remaining risk after controls have been applied, and ensuring it is within acceptable levels demonstrates that the risk treatment plan is effective.
* Managing Residual Risk within Appetite and Tolerance (Answer B):
* Definition: Residual risk is the risk remaining after risk treatment measures have been implemented.
* Significance: Managing residual risk within the set appetite and tolerance levels shows that the implemented controls are effective and aligned with the organization's risk management objectives.
* Outcome: It ensures that the organization's risk exposure is kept within acceptable boundaries, thereby protecting its assets and operations.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* A. Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level:
* Definition: Inherent risk is the risk before any controls are applied.
* Limitation: The focus should be on residual risk post-treatment.
* C. Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers:
* Purpose: While benchmarking is useful, it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of risk treatment.
* D. Key controls are identified and documented:
* Purpose: Identifying and documenting controls is necessary, but effectiveness is shown by managing residual risk.
References:
* ISACA CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3, "Risk Response and Reporting", which highlights the importance of managing residual risk within the organization's appetite and tolerance.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical
control associated with an application?
- A. Risk owner
- B. System owner
- C. Process owner
- D. Internal auditor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Role of the System Owner:
The system owner is responsible for the overall operation and management of an application or system. This
includes ensuring that technical controls are implemented and functioning as intended.
They have detailed knowledge of the system's architecture, the controls in place, and how those controls are
applied within the system.
Effectiveness of Technical Controls:
Assessing the effectiveness of a technical control requires understanding its implementation, configuration,
and operational context.
The system owner is best positioned to provide this information as they manage and oversee the technical
environment of the application.
Comparing Other Roles:
Internal Auditor:While auditors review and evaluate the effectiveness of controls, they do so from an
independent standpoint and might not have detailed, day-to-day operational insights.
Process Owner:The process owner focuses on business processes rather than technical controls specific to an
application.
Risk Owner:The risk owner is responsible for managing risk but may not have the technical expertise or
detailed operational knowledge of the system.
Supporting Information:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the system owner is often involved in the assessment and reporting
of control effectiveness, especially regarding technical controls (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk
Response and Mitigation, Section 3.1.3 Assessing Control Effectiveness) .
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?
- A. To assign a risk owner to manage the risk
- B. To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management
- C. To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization
- D. To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results is to communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management, as this enables them to make informed decisions about risk response and allocation of resources. The risk register is a tool for documenting and reporting the current status of risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, and responses. Updating the risk register with risk assessment results ensures that the information is accurate, relevant, and timely. The risk register also helps to monitor and track the progress and effectiveness of risk management activities. The other options are not the primary reasons to update the risk register, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 109.
NEW QUESTION # 87
The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:
- A. efficiently manage the scope of the assignment
- B. identify critical information systems
- C. establish overall impact to the organization
- D. facilitate communication to senior management
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?
- A. The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.
- B. The risk response is accounted for in the budget.
- C. The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.
- D. The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk response is the action or plan that is taken to address a specific risk that has been identified, analyzed, and evaluated. It can be one of the following types: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept.
The highest priority when developing a risk response is to ensure that it aligns with the organization's risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals.
The risk appetite is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the organization's strategy and culture.
Aligning the risk response with the organization's risk appetite ensures that the risk response is consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risk, and that it supports the organization's objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the risk response is suitable and acceptable for the organization.
The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view means that the risk response considers the interrelationships and dependencies among the risk sources, events, impacts, and responses, and the potential secondary and residual effects of the risk response. This is important to ensure that the risk response is comprehensive and effective, and that it does not create new or unintended risks, but it is not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because it does not indicate whether the risk response is aligned with the organization's risk appetite.
The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis means that the risk response compares the expected costs and benefits of implementing the risk response, and selects the risk response that provides the most favorable net outcome. This is important to ensure that the risk response is efficient and economical, and that it maximizes the return on investment, but it is not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because it does not indicate whether the risk response is aligned with the organization's risk appetite.
The risk response is accounted for in the budget means that the risk response is included in the financial plan and allocation of resources for the organization or the project. This is important to ensure that the risk response is feasible and realistic, and that it has the necessary funding and support, but it is not the highest priority when developing a risk response, because it does not indicate whether the risk response is aligned with the organization's risk appetite. References = ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45, 50-51, 54-55 ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 147
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?
- A. The register is shared with executive management.
- B. Compensating controls are identified.
- C. The register is updated frequently.
- D. An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 90
A threat intelligence team has identified an indicator of compromise related to an advanced persistent threat (APT) actor. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
- A. Review the most recent vulnerability scanning report.
- B. Review prior security incidents related to the asset.
- C. Determine the business criticality of the asset.
- D. Determine the adequacy of existing security controls.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Upon identification of an indicator of compromise (IoC) associated with an APT actor, the risk practitioner's best course of action is to assess the adequacy of existing security controls. This involves evaluating whether current defenses are sufficient to detect, prevent, and respond tosuch sophisticated threats. Ensuring control effectiveness is vital to mitigating the risk posed by APTs.CISA Reference:ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Information Technology and Security, Section: Threat and Vulnerability Management.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk
indicators (KRIs)?
- A. The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.
- B. The KRIs are not automated.
- C. The KRIs are not quantitative.
- D. The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs) is that the KRIs'
source data lacks integrity, as this means that the data is inaccurate, incomplete, inconsistent, or outdated, and
therefore cannot provide reliable and valid information on the risk level and performance. The KRIs are
metrics that measure and monitor the changes in the risk exposure and the effectiveness of the risk response
over time. The KRIs' source data should be collected and verified from credible and relevant sources, and
should be updated and maintained regularly. The KRIs' source data should also be aligned and integrated with
the enterprise's data governance and quality standards. The other options are not the greatest concerns for a
risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs), although they may pose some challenges or
limitations. The KRIs are not automated is a concern for the efficiency and timeliness of the KRI reporting
and analysis, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI source data. The KRIs are not quantitative is a
concern for the objectivity and comparability of the KRI measurement and prioritization, but it does not affect
the integrity of the KRI source data. The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis is a concern for the usefulness
and relevance of the KRI communication and decision making, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI
source data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control
Monitoring and Reporting, page 183.
NEW QUESTION # 92
A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the
organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
- A. effectively support a business maturity model.
- B. be reviewed by the IT steering committee.
- C. be available to all stakeholders.
- D. reflect the results of risk assessments.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?
- A. Enterprise risk management (ERM)
- B. IT compliance and IT audit
- C. The board and executive management
- D. Regulators and shareholders
Answer: C
Explanation:
Role of the Board and Executive Management:
* The board of directors and executive management are responsible for setting the overall strategic direction of the organization, including its risk tolerance.
* They have the authority and oversight necessary to define the levels of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives.
Defining Risk Tolerance:
* Risk tolerance refers to the acceptable level of variation in performance relative to the achievement of objectives. It is essentially the degree of risk the organization is willing to endure.
* The board and executive management establish risk tolerance based on the organization's strategic goals, capacity to absorb losses, and regulatory requirements.
Importance of Senior Leadership:
* Senior leadership's involvement ensures that risk tolerance is aligned with the organization's overall strategy and risk appetite.
* It provides a top-down approach to risk management, ensuring consistency and alignment across the organization.
Comparing Other Stakeholders:
* IT Compliance and IT Audit: These functions are responsible for monitoring and ensuring adherence to policies but do not set risk tolerance.
* Regulators and Shareholders: They influence risk management practices through external pressures but do not define risk tolerance directly.
* Enterprise Risk Management (ERM): ERM frameworks support the implementation of risk management but the actual definition of risk tolerance comes from the board and executive management.
References:
* The CRISC Review Manual discusses how senior management, including the board, is responsible for defining risk tolerance and ensuring it aligns with the organization's risk appetite (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.10 Risk Appetite, Tolerance, and Capacity) .
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining the appropriate data retention period throughout the data management life cycle?
- A. Choice of encryption algorithms
- B. Legal and regulatory requirements
- C. Data owner preferences
- D. Data storage and collection methods
Answer: B
Explanation:
Legal and regulatory requirements are paramount when determining data retention periods. Compliance with laws such as GDPR, HIPAA, or industry-specific regulations ensures that data is retained appropriately and disposed of when no longer necessary, thereby mitigating legal risks.
Reference:ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section: Data Management and Privacy.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?
- A. A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels
- B. A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance
- C. A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies
- D. A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance
Answer: B
Explanation:
A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance is the most useful information for senior management when determining an appropriate risk response, as it shows the gap between the actual risk exposure and the desired risk exposure of the enterprise. This gap indicates the need and urgency for risk response actions, and helps senior management to prioritize and allocate resources for risk mitigation. A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance also reflects the effectiveness of the existing risk management process and controls, and enables senior management to monitor and adjust the risk strategy and objectives accordingly. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 234. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question
9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 234. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 234.
NEW QUESTION # 96
You are the project manager of the NHH Project. You are working with the project team to create a plan to document the procedures to manage risks throughout the project. This document will define how risks will be identified and quantified. It will also define how contingency plans will be implemented by the project team.
What document do you and your team is creating in this scenario?
- A. Risk management plan
- B. Project plan
- C. Resource management plan
- D. Project management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
The risk management plan, part of the comprehensive management plan, defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, monitored and controlled, and even responded to.
A Risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate the effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. It also consists of the risk assessment matrix.
Risks are built in with any project, and project managers evaluate risks repeatedly and build plans to address them. The risk management plan consists of analysis of possible risks with both high and low impacts, and the mitigation strategies to facilitate the project and avoid being derailed through which the common problems arise. Risk management plans should be timely reviewed by the project team in order to avoid having the analysis become stale and not reflective of actual potential project risks. Most critically, risk management plans include a risk strategy for project execution.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The project plan is not an official PMBOK project management plan.
B: The resource management plan defines the management of project resources, such as project team members, facilities, equipment, and contractors.
C: The project management plan is a comprehensive plan that communicates the intent of the project for all project management knowledge areas.
NEW QUESTION # 97
What are the various outputs of risk response?
- A. Residual risk
- B. Risk-related contract decisions
- C. Project management plan and Project document updates
- D. Risk Priority Number
- E. Risk register updates
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The outputs of the risk response planning process are:
Risk Register Updates: The risk register is written in detail so that it can be related to the priority
ranking and the planned response.
Risk Related Contract Decisions: Risk related contract decisions are the decisions to transmit risk, such
as services, agreements for insurance, and other items as required. It provides a means for sharing risks.
Project Management Plan Updates: Some of the elements of the project management plan updates
are:
- Schedule management plan
- Cost management plan
- Quality management plan
- Procurement management plan
- Human resource management plan
- Work breakdown structure
- Schedule baseline
- Cost performance baseline
Project Document Updates: Some of the project documents that can be updated includes:
- Assumption log updates
- Technical documentation updates
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk priority number is not an output for risk response but instead it is done before applying response.
Hence it act as one of the inputs of risk response and is not the output of it.
B: Residual risk is not an output of risk response. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls. It is not feasible to eliminate all risks from an organization. Instead, measures can be taken to reduce risk to an acceptable level. The risk that is left is residual risk. As, Risk = Threat Vulnerability and Total risk = Threat Vulnerability Asset Value Residual risk can be calculated with the following formula:
Residual Risk = Total Risk - Controls
Senior management is responsible for any losses due to residual risk. They decide whether a risk should be avoided, transferred, mitigated or accepted. They also decide what controls to implement. Any loss due to their decisions falls on their sides.
Residual risk assessments are conducted after mitigation to determine the impact of the risk on the enterprise. For risk assessment, the effect and frequency is reassessed and the impact is recalculated.
NEW QUESTION # 98
The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:
- A. executive management does not perform periodic reviews.
- B. IT risk is not linked with IT assets.
- C. significant changes in risk factors are excluded.
- D. impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses,
and owners. The greatest concern when maintaining a risk register is that significant changes in risk factors
are excluded. Risk factors are the internal and external variables that influence the occurrence and impact of
risks. Risk factors can change over time due to changes in the business environment, the IT landscape, the
threat landscape, or the regulatory requirements. If the risk register does not reflect the significant changes in
risk factors, it may not provide an accurate and current view of the enterprise's risk profile and may not
support effective risk management decisions and actions. The other options are not as concerning as the
exclusion of significant changes in risk factors, as they involve different aspects of the risk register:
Impacts are recorded in qualitative terms means that the risk register uses descriptive scales, such as low,
medium, and high, to measure the potential consequences of the risks. This may not be asprecise or consistent
as quantitative measures, such as monetary values or percentages, but it does not necessarily affect the
validity or usefulness of the risk register.
Executive management does not perform periodic reviews means that the risk register is not regularly
evaluated and updated by the senior leaders of the enterprise. This may indicate a lack of management
commitment or oversight for risk management, but it does not directly affect the quality or completeness of
the risk register.
IT risk is not linked with IT assets means that the risk register does not associate the identified risks with the
specific IT resources, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that are affected by or contribute to the
risks. This may limit the visibility and traceability of the risks, but it does not necessarily affect the
identification or assessment of the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual,
7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2.2, pp. 21-22.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when determining if a specific control should
be implemented?
- A. Business impact analysis (BIA)
- B. Root cause analysis
- C. Cost-benefit analysis
- D. Attribute analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
A cost-benefit analysis is a tool that compares the costs and benefits of different alternatives, such as
implementing or not implementing a specific control. A cost-benefit analysis provides the most useful
information when determining if a specific control should be implemented, as it can show the potential
savings, benefits, and risks of each option, and help the decision-makers choose the best course of action. A
cost-benefit analysis can also include qualitative factors, such as security, compliance, performance, and
customer satisfaction, that may be affected by thecontrol implementation. References = ISACA Certified in
Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question
256. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 256. Most Asked
CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
NEW QUESTION # 100
When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?
- A. A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment
- B. Demonstration that the control is operating as designed
- C. Management attestation that the control is operating effectively
- D. Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?
- A. Periodic assessments
- B. Change management
- C. Awareness training
- D. Policy updates
Answer: A
Explanation:
Continuous risk management process improvement is the practice of evaluating and enhancing the risk
management process on a regular basis, to ensure that it is effective, efficient, and aligned with the business
objectives and strategy. Continuous risk management process improvement can help identify and address the
gaps, weaknesses, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and ensure that the
process is responsive and adaptable to the changing risk environment. The most effective method for
continuous risk management process improvement is periodic assessments, which are systematic and
objective evaluations of the risk management process, performed at predefined intervals or after significant
events. Periodic assessments can help measure and monitor the performance and maturity of the risk
management process, using criteria such as the risk management framework, standards, policies, procedures,
methods, tools, roles, responsibilities, and results. Periodic assessments can also help identify and analyze the
strengths, weaknesses, threats, and opportunities of the risk management process, and provide feedback and
recommendations for improvement. Periodic assessments can also help communicate and report the status and
progress of the risk management process to the stakeholders, and obtain their input and support for
improvement actions. References = Continuous Risk Management Guidebook, p. 7-8, ISO 31000:
riskmanagement and its continuous improvement, How Continuous Monitoring Drives Risk Management.
NEW QUESTION # 102
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